kgain kgain
  • 04-05-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

Respuesta :

arlen54
arlen54 arlen54
  • 04-05-2020
That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence
Answer Link
lincolin lincolin
  • 04-05-2020

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Consider two linear transformations y = T(x) and z = L(y), where T goes from R^m to R^p and L goes from R^p to R^n. Is the transformationz = L(T(x)) linear as w
what is force ?is it desirable or undesirable?
The Habsburg Empire did all of the following EXCEPT A. take control of Hungary, Croatia, and Slovonia. B. lose their Holy Roman Empire in Germany. C. remain a c
what is force ?is it desirable or undesirable?
let g(x)=x-3 and h(x)=x^2+6 find (h o g) (1)
How would you define psychological realism?
I just need the equation on how to do it. I'm so lost :'( help please!!!!!!
What is the probability of someone correctly guessing your Social Security number? (Assume all digits 0-9 are available for use)a
f f(x) = 2x2 and g(x) = 3x, what is (g o f)(x) a. 6x2 b. 9x2 c. 18x2 d. 8x4
What are the operation sines that make this statement correct? 3_5_7_18_3=14