jb292 jb292
  • 02-07-2020
  • Mathematics
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Please help me with this question urgent help please

Please help me with this question urgent help please class=

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snog
snog snog
  • 02-07-2020

Answer:

Since (a^m) ^ n = a^(m * n), we can write this as v⁶ * ⁽⁻⁷⁾ = v⁻⁴². Since we don't want a negative exponent, remember that a⁻ⁿ = 1 / aⁿ so the answer is 1 / v⁴².

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