maharjanprasana11
maharjanprasana11 maharjanprasana11
  • 04-01-2022
  • Mathematics
contestada

Using De-Moivre's theorem, prove that i^2= -1.​

Respuesta :

LammettHash
LammettHash LammettHash
  • 04-01-2022

Write i in trigonometric form. Since |i| = 1 and arg(i) = π/2, we have

i = exp(i π/2) = cos(π/2) + i sin(π/2)

By DeMoivre's theorem,

i² = exp(i π/2)² = exp(i π) = cos(π) + i sin(π)

and it follows that i² = -1 since cos(π) = -1 and sin(π) = 0.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Factorise (3x+1)2 - (3x+1) (x-7)
negative six minus seven
Carbohydrates that have calories, but are low in nutrients are called what
bakit nanakop ang kanlurang asy a
Please help!!!! I need to finish this tek before Tuesday comes. Can anyone help me with this and explain?
1. PART A: MANAGEMENT OF ASSETS You have been appointed as the asset manager of KK Traders, the owner Informed you amongst other things, the following findings
in the figure below PQRS is a parallelogram. Find the values of x y and z.​
Significant sea level changes can be traced to changes in the
Progression is... the training load expressed as resistance, speed or heart rate a gradual increase in one or more of the FITT variables to create an overload e
What is a 'call to action' in regards to persuasive speaking?